Balance Billing Past Timely

Hello Fellow Coding Gurus,

So my mom has Medicare/Tricare and recently decided to get a second opinion. She requested records from the PCP (who required a $50 fee to distribute) and interpreted the request as transferring care. They decided to slap her with a $200 bill for a G0439 service that was not paid by Medicare (Though Medicare did pay the 99213 for a same day e and m). The date of service was 5/30/2013 and she is just now getting the bill from the PCP. They are also charging interest. I can not imagine that this is correct billing. Of course, I submitted an appeal but it is past timely filing as we did not know this bill would be on her. Can someone advise me of best action here? I don't think this practice should get away with this kind of patient treatment. I have already discussed my concerns with the practice

Thank you

Sparkles

Balance Billing Past Timely